I am curious how you are differentiating SNP “pins” of a causal nature vs simple pop strat, since (as I will argue), if the SNP correlations are largely pop strat, the model still works to make predictions even if none of the variants have any causal effect?
I am curious how you are differentiating SNP “pins” of a causal nature vs simple pop strat, since (as I will argue), if the SNP correlations are largely pop strat, the model still works to make predictions even if none of the variants have any causal effect?